CDS Questions on Constitution of India

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CDS 2021-I

1. Which of the following statements regarding the 'casting vote' in the Parliament is/are correct?

  1. It is cast by the speaker or a person acting as such.
  2. It is cast in addition to voting in the first instance.
  3. It is cast in the case of equality of votes.
  4. It is always cast to maintain the status quo.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 3 only

2. Equality before the law or equal protection of the laws withing the territory of India is guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  1. Article 14
  2. Article 15
  3. Article 16
  4. Article 22

3. Article 231 of the Constitution of India grants power to establish a common High Court for two or more states to

  1. the Parliament
  2. the Supreme Court
  3. the President of India
  4. the Union Cabinet

4. Which one among the following motions cannot be made while introducing an ordinary Bill in the Parliament?

  1. That the Bill be taken into consideration
  2. That the Bill be circulated for the purpose of eliciting public opinion
  3. That the Bill be referred to a Select Committee
  4. That the Bill be referred to a Joint Committee of the House without the concurrence of the other House

5. Which one among the following was eliminated by the 44th Amendment Act of the Parliament?

  1. Right against Exploitation
  2. Right to Constitional Remedies
  3. Right to Property
  4. Right to Education

6. Which of the following statements with regard to the creation of a new state or alteration of boundaries of states is/are correct?

  1. An amendment has to be moved in the Parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
  2. Ratification by one half of the states is necessary after the amendment is made by the Parliament.
  3. The legislation can be passed by a simple majority of both Houses of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

7. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj System are correct?

  1. All seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by direct election.
  2. The 'Gram Sabha' consists of persons registered in the village electoral rolls.
  3. The Chairperson of a Panchayat is elected in accordance with a law passed by each state.
  4. All states in India have a three-tier system of Panchayats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The elections to the Panchayat are conducted by the State Election Commission.
  2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India.
  3. The State Legislatures have the power to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3 only

9. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Union Cabinet?

  1. It is part of the Parliament.
  2. It is responsible to the Parliament.
  3. It is remains in power till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament.
  4. A person the outside the Parliament can never be appointed a member of the Cabinet.

10. Which one of the following statements about the composition of the Parliament is not correct?

  1. Representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.
  2. Representatives from Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by direct elections.
  3. Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members.
  4. Lok Sabha has seats reserved fro SCs and STs.

11. Which among the following fundamental rights is/are available to non-citizens?

  1. Freedom of speech
  2. Protection against self-incrimination
  3. Freedom of conscience
  4. Non-discrimination in matters of employment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 2 only

12. Which one of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is not correct?

  1. He is not eligible for re-election.
  2. He must not be less than 35 years of age.
  3. He is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
  4. His term of office is five years.

13. A motion of no-confidence is moved against

  1. an individual Minister.
  2. the Council of Ministers.
  3. the Prime Minister.
  4. a political party.

CDS 2021 - II

14. Which among the following is not a condition for the disqualification of a Member of Parliament?

  1. Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of a foreign country
  2. Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
  3. The Member abstains from voting in the House without prior permission
  4. The Member holds the office of the Chairman of the Board of Directos of the National Coal Development Corporation Ltd.

15. Who among the following considered the Directive Principles of State Policy as aiming at 'furthering the goals of social exclusion'?

  1. B.N. Rau
  2. Granville Austin
  3. K.C. Wheare
  4. Rajni Kothari

16. The provision, 'the State shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State' is incorporated in which part of the Constitution of India?

  1. Part-IV
  2. Part-V
  3. Part-VI
  4. Part-VII

17. Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Speaker may permit any Member to address the House in his/her mother tongue, if he/she cannot adequately express in either Hindi or English.
  2. Business of the Parliamentary Committees is transacted either in Hindi or in English.
  3. The minutes of the Parliamentary Committees are prepared invariable in Hindi or English.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

18. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the term 'State', as defined in Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

  1. It refers only to the Government of India.
  2. It refers only to the Government of India and the Parliament of India.
  3. It refers only to the Government of India, Parliament of India, and Governments and Legislatures of each State.
  4. It refers to the Government of India, Parliament of India, Governments and Legislatures of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India.

19. Which one among the following is the largest State in terms of seats in the Rajya Sabha?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Bihar
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Karnataka

20. Under which Article of the Constitution of India has provision been made for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?

  1. Article 243 B
  2. Article 243 C
  3. Article 243 D
  4. Article 243 E

21. Following the Constituion (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the Parliament of India enacted quite a few GST Acts in the year 2017. Which one of the following does not fall in this category?

  1. The Central Goods and Services Tax Act
  2. The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act
  3. The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Acts
  4. The State Goods and Services Tax Act

22. Which one of the following is not correct?

  1. Taxes on agricultural income is a subject under the State List.
  2. Price control is a subject under the Concurrent List.
  3. Insurance does not come under the Union List.
  4. 'Forests' is a subject under the Concurrent List.

23. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature of India's federal system?

  1. There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States.
  2. Sikkim was not initially included in the Union as a full-fledged State.
  3. Special provisions have been laid down in the Constituion of India for Andhra Pradesh under Article 371 D.
  4. The Constitution of India enables the federal government to acquire the strength of a unitary system during emergencies.

24. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression. But the freedom is subject to certain reasonable restrictions imposed by the State. These restrictions may relate to which of the following?

  1. Defamation
  2. Decency or morality
  3. Incitement to an offence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

25. Which one of the following amendments in the Constitution of India made a Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review?

  1. 39th Amendment
  2. 40th Amendment
  3. 42nd Amendment
  4. 44th Amendment

26. Which one of the following is not a correct statement with reference to the Constitution of India?

  1. The Constitution of (Eighty-Fifth) Amendment Act has inserted the 'Right to Education' under Article 21A.
  2. Article 22 talks about preventive detention.
  3. Right to Constitutional Remedies is in Part-III of the Constitution.
  4. writ jurisdiction of High Courts is wider than the Supreme Court of India

27. Which one of the following statements regarding constitutional amendment is/are correct?

  1. The procedure for amendment to the Constitution is provided in Article 368.
  2. A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
  3. The special precedure in Article 368 vests constituent powers upon the ordinary legislation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

28. Which one of the following is not a circumstance for proclamation of Emergency by the President of India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?

  1. War
  2. External aggression
  3. Internal disturbance
  4. Armed rebellion

CDS 2022 - I

29. Which one of the following is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India?

  1. National Emergency
  2. State Emergency in terms of Proclamation of President's Rule in a State
  3. Financial Emergency
  4. Health Emergency

30. Which one of the following is not a provision related to a Money Bill?

  1. Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
  2. Appropriation of moneys out of Consolidated Fund of India
  3. Imposition of fines by local authority for local purpose
  4. Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contigency Fund of India

31. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Committee on Estimates is an ad hoc committee of the Parliament.
  2. Committee on Railway Convention is a standing committee of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian Federalism?

  1. The federating units consented to form a union
  2. Residuary powers vest with the Centre
  3. Single citizenship
  4. An extensive Union and Concurrent list

CDS 2023 - I

33. Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following?

  1. Freedom of speech and expression
  2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
  3. To acquire and dispose property
  4. To move freely throughout the territory of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

34. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Election Commission is not correct?

  1. It conducts elections to the office of the Vice President of India
  2. An Election Commissioner can be removed from his office without the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner
  3. Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India
  4. Governor of a State is constitutionally bound to provide support staff to the Election Commission, if required

35. Which of the following statements with regard to the Preamble to the Constitution of India is/are correct?

  1. Equality of status and equality of opportunity find mention in the Preamble.
  2. The expression 'unity and integrity of the Nation' was not there in the Preamble since the beginning.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

36. In Part-IVA of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not mentioned as a duty of every citizen of India?

  1. To render national service when called upon to do so
  2. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
  3. To value and preserve a unitary national culture
  4. To develop the spirit of inquiry and reform

37. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. The executive powers of the Union shall be vested in the President of India.
  2. Parliament, by law, can confer functions on authorities other than the President of India.
  3. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of all Members of Parliament and all Members of all State Legislatures
  4. A person, having held office as the President, shall be eligible for election to that office for the second term.

38. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India requires the Prime Minister of India to furnish information related to decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President of India?

  1. Article 78
  2. Article 74
  3. Article 75
  4. Article 81

39. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. All executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President of India
  2. The President of India appoints a person as Attorney General of India provided she/he is qualified to be a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court
  3. The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers cannot exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the House of People
  4. The President of India is bound to act as per the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers

40. The issue, 'whether Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code is violative of Articles 21, 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India' was decided in which of the following cases?

  1. Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
  2. Vishakha vs. State of Rajasthan
  3. Shayara Bano vs. Union of India
  4. Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of Delhi and others

41. Which one of the following writs mean 'you may have the body'?

  1. Habeas Corpus
  2. Mandamus
  3. Certiorari
  4. Quo Warranto

42. Which one of the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct?

  1. He shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People.
  2. He may, at any time, resign by writing his resignation to the President of India.
  3. He may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by majority of all the then members of the House.
  4. While the office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker.

43. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to

  1. Implementation of Directive Principles
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Right to Equality

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

44. Which one of the following statements about the process of the Parliament to make new States is not correct?

  1. The parliament may by law form a new State and alter the boundaries or names of existing States.
  2. A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the parliament except on the recommendation of the President.
  3. A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the Legislature of the affected State.
  4. Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

45. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

  1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
  2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

46. The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to

  1. an enemy alien
  2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
  3. a foreigner
  4. an overseas citizen of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4 only

CDS 2022 - II

47. Who among the following is given discretionary powers under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India to set up a Tribes Advisory Council in a State which has Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas?

  1. The Governor of the concerned State
  2. The President of India
  3. The Inter-State Council
  4. The Parliament of India

48. Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?

  1. A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.
  2. The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
  3. The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils.
  4. The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed.

49. Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India?

  1. Promote international peace and security
  2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
  3. Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes
  4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

CDS 2023 - II

50. The excutive is given an advance grant to meet temporary and running requirements of Government of India in the beginning of the new financial year until the demands are voted by the legislature. This is known as:

  1. Vote of Credit
  2. Vote on Account
  3. Appropriation Bill
  4. Advance Account

51. Which of the following statements about the Panchayats in India, as per the Constitution of India is/are correct?

  1. There is a provision for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  2. Panchayats are not authorised to collect taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

52. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India has introduced reservations in education and in public employment for people from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society?

  1. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act
  2. The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act
  3. The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Act
  4. The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act

53. Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an Emergency is declared?

  1. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
  2. Rigth to constitutional remedies
  3. Rigth to move freely throughout the territory of India
  4. Equality before law

54. Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is decided by:

  1. The President of India
  2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. The Supreme Court of India
  4. The concerned Political Party

CDS Solved Papers

CDS 2019 - I Solved Paper CDS 2019 - II Solved Paper CDS 2020 - I Solved Paper CDS 2020 - II Solved Paper CDS 2021 - I Solved Paper CDS 2021 - II Solved Paper CDS 2022 - I Solved Paper CDS 2022 - II Solved Paper CDS 2023 - I Solved Paper CDS 2023 - II Solved Paper